$\quad$ I'm not convinced of my demonstration below, could someone give me a hint?
$(\Leftarrow)$ Is it correct?
$\quad$ Suppose $\{0\}$ be prime. Then for $x,y \in R\setminus\{0\}$ we have $xy\in \{0\}$ implies $x=0$ or $y=0$ and thus $A$ is an integral domain.
$(\Rightarrow)$ Is it correct?
$\quad$ If $A$ is an integral domain, then there are no zero divisors. So if $xy=0$ we have $x=0$ or $y=0$ meaning $\{0\}$ is a prime ideal.
$\square$