Here is a perfectly fine answer to the question: Linear functional $f$ is continuous at $x_0=0$ if and only if $f$ is continuous $\forall x\in X$?
However, I am in a set and topology course and my professor proved this using sequences. I am going over the proof and am unsure of one step.
Let X with $\lVert{X}\rVert$ and Y with $\lVert{Y}\rVert$ be normed vector spaces(Over ${\rm I\!R}$). Let T: X -> Y be a linear projection.
Show that if T is continuous in $\overline{0}$ it is continuous*.
Solution:
Let a $\in$ X. Let $x_{n}$ -> a.
$x_{n}$ - a -> $\overline{0}$ $\quad$ Because X is a vector space and $x_{n}$ converges to a.
T($x_{n}$ - a) -> $\overline{0}$ $\quad$ **
T($x_{n}$) - T(a) -> $\overline{0}$ $\quad$ b/c T is a linear projection
T($x_{n}$) -> T(a) $\quad$ Which implies T is continuous in a.
*In every point I suppose
** Why is this ok?
Is there some clever rule I'm missing?
/Regards
What your techer used were sequences, not series.
The proof is correct. And it doesn't apply to $T(x)=x+b$ since this is not a linear map.