This question is related to another question I asked here.
Specifically, using the definition of $e$ I gave in that question:
There exists a unique complex function $f$ such that
- $f(z)$ is a single valued function $f(z) \in \mathbb{R}$ whenever $z \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f(1) = e$
- $\forall z_{1}, z_{2} \in \mathbb{C}$, $f$ satisfies $f(z_{1} + z_{2}) = f(z_{1})f(z_{2})$
- $f$ is complex differentiable for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$.
Essentially, what I'm doing in the problem linked here is trying to prove that for $f$ such a function as meets those three criteria, $f^{\prime}(0) = 1$. The $f$ I am hoping to get eventually is $f(z) = e^{z}$, but that is what I am trying to prove; I cannot use anything specifically about $e^{z}$ here, only what is provided here in our definition of the function $f$.
Eventually, I was able to show that $f^{\prime}(0) = \lim_{\Delta z \to 0} \frac{f(\Delta z)-f(0)}{\Delta z} = f(0) \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(\Delta x) - 1}{\Delta x}$.
But, I don't know how to go any further!
I need to show that $f'(0) = \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(\Delta x)-1}{\Delta x} = 1$.
Other people have posted similar questions to this on here, but they haven't been answered particularly well. I can't assume anything about $e^z$, nor can I use anything like L'Hopital's rule, or logarithms, or series expansions.
This is probably very very simple. Even an $\epsilon$-$\delta$ proof would be good, if you could write the whole thing out. I tried that route and I wasn't able to make any progress.
Please help!!
Note that we have
$$f(z_1+z_2)=f(z_1)f(z_2) \tag 1$$
and $f(1)=e$.
Then, from $(1)$ we see that $f(0+1)=f(1)=f(0)f(1)\implies f(0)=1$.
Next, we analyze the derivative of $f(z)$ and find that
$$\begin{align} f'(z)&=\lim_{\Delta z\to 0}\frac{f(z+\Delta z)-f(z)}{\Delta z}\\\\ &=\lim_{\Delta z\to 0}\frac{f(z)f(\Delta z)-f(z)}{\Delta z}\\\\ \frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}&=\lim_{\Delta z\to 0}\frac{f(\Delta z)-1}{\Delta z}\\\\ &=f'(0)\tag 1 \end{align}$$
Note that $(1)$ hold for all $z$. In particular, it holds for real values of $z$, say $x$. Then, we have
$$f'(x)=f'(0)f(x)\tag 2$$
and $f(1)=e$.
The solution to $(2)$ is $f(x)=Ce^{f'(0)x}$.
Since $f(0)=1$, then $C=1$. And since $f(1)=e$, $f'(0)=1$.
And we are done!