Given that:$$f(n)=1!+2!+3!+4!+\cdots n!$$ for $n\ge2$
$f(n)$ is always divisible by 3.
Demonstration: It seems to work but I can't shows it $$1+2!=3(1)$$ $$1+2!+3!=3(3)$$ $$1+2!+3!+4!=3(11)$$ $$1+2!+3!+4!+5!=3(51)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+6!=3(291)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+7!=3(1971)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+8!=3(15411)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+9!=3(136371)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+10!=3(1345971)$$ $$$1+2!+\cdots+11!=3(14651571)$$
How can I show that it is true or false?
$$ 1!+2!+3!+4!+\cdots+n!=(1+2)+2\cdot3+2\cdot3\cdot4 +\cdots + 2\cdot3\cdot 4\cdot 5\cdots n= $$ $$ =3(1+2+2\cdot 4+2\cdot4\cdot5 + 2\cdot 4\cdot5\cdots n) $$