Let $(X,d)$ and $(Y,p)$ be metric spaces, where $X$ is complete, and define continuous functions $f,g:X \to Y$. If $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ are Cauchy sequences in $X$ and $u_n:=p(f(x_n),g(y_n))$ for all $n\in \mathbb{N}$, show that the sequence $(u_n)$ converges.
What I knew was:
- Since $f$ is continuous, say at $x_0\in X$, then for any $\varepsilon >0$, there exists $\delta _1>0$ such that for all $x\in X$ with $d(x,x_0)<\delta _1$, we have $p(f(x),f(x_0))<\varepsilon$. Similarly, since $g$ is continuous, say at $y_0\in X$, then for any $\varepsilon >0$, there exists $\delta _2>0$ such that for all $y\in X$ with $d(y,y_0)<\delta _2$, we have $p(f(y),f(y_0))<\varepsilon$.
- Since $X$ is complete, then $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ are convergent, say $x_n\to x$ and $y_n\to y$, where $x,y\in X$. This means that for any $\varepsilon >0$, there exists $N_1,N_2\in \mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n\geq N_1$ and $n\geq N_2$, we have $d(x_n,x)<\varepsilon$ and $d(y_n,y)<\varepsilon$, respectively.
I didn't know yet how to apply these facts to showing that $(u_n)$ is converges. Any helps? Thanks in advanced.
Since $X$ is complete and both $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ are Cauchy sequences in $X$, then they are convergent in $X$. Let's say $x_n \to x \in X$ and $y_n \to y \in X$. Since both $f$ and $g$ are continuous in $X$, then they are continuous at every points in $X$. In particular, $f$ continuous at $x$ in $X$ and $g$ continuous at $y$ in $X$. Now, since $x_n \to x$ and $f$ continuous at $x$ in $X$, then $f(x_n) \to f(x)$. Similarly, $g(y_n) \to g(y)$. Claim: $p(f(x_n),g(y_n))$ converges to $p(f(x),g(y))$. Before we prove it, notice by definition of metric that $$p(f(x_n),g(y_n)) \le p(f(x_n),f(x)) + p(f(x),g(y)) + p(g(y),g(y_n))$$ or $$p(f(x_n),g(y_n)) - p(f(x),g(y)) \le p(f(x_n),f(x)) + p(g(y),g(y_n)), \qquad (1)$$ and $$p(f(x),g(y)) \le p(f(x),f(x_n)) + p(f(x_n),g(y_n)) + p(g(y_n),g(y)$$ or $$p(f(x),g(y)) - p(f(x_n),g(y_n)) \le p(f(x),f(x_n)) + p(g(y_n),g(y). \qquad (2)$$
Proof:
Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Since $f(x_n) \to f(x)$, there exists $N_1 \in \Bbb N$ such that for all $n \ge N_1$, we have $p(f(x_n),f(x)) < \frac{\epsilon}{2}$. Similarly, since $g(y_n) \to g(y)$, there exists $N_2 \in \Bbb N$ such that for all $n \ge N_2$, we have $p(g(y_n),g(y)) < \frac{\epsilon}{2}$. Let $N=\max\{N_1,N_2\}$. Then $N \in \Bbb N$ and for all $n \ge N$, we have \begin{align*} |p(f(x_n),g(y_n)) - p(f(x),g(y))| &\le p(f(x_n),f(x)) + p(g(y_n),g(y)) \qquad \text{(By $(1)$ and $(2)$)} \\ &< \frac{\epsilon}{2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2} \\ &= \epsilon. \end{align*} Hence, $p(f(x_n),g(y_n))$ converges to $p(f(x),g(y))$, as desired. Q.E.D.