I used the following result in another post without providing proof (because I couldn't prove it):
$$k^a=\sum_{m=1}^b\left ( c_m^a\prod_{n\neq m} \frac{k-c_n}{c_m-c_n} \right ),$$
where $a$ and $b$ are non-negative integers, $b>a$, each $c_j\in\mathbb{C}$, each $|c_j|>0$, and each $c_j$ is unique. The product runs from $n=1$ to $b$ but skips $m$.
How can we prove this?
Given $\{c_n\}_{n=1}^b$ (where $c_n \not= c_m$ for $n\not = m$) we define
$$h(z) = \prod_{n=1}^b (z-c_n)$$ Then
$$h'(c_m) = \prod_{n\not = m}^b (c_m-c_n)$$
Using this the right hand side minus the left hand side of your equality can be written
$$g(z)\equiv \sum_{m=1}^bc_m^a\frac{h(z)}{h'(c_m)(z-c_m)} - z^a$$
which is a polynomial of degree $b-1$ satisfying (since $\lim_{z\to c_m} \frac{h(z)}{z-c_m} = h'(c_m)$)
$$g(c_n) = 0,~~~~n=1,2,\ldots,b$$
thus $g(z) \equiv 0$ as no non-zero polynomial of degree $b-1$ can have more than $b-1$ roots. Note that we do not need the restriction $|c_i|>0$.
For the case $b=a+1$ there is an even simpler proof. See this related question.