Show that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{2k}{k^2+n^2+1} = \ln(2)$$
How many ways are there to prove it ?
Is there a standard way ?
I was thinking about making it a Riemann sum. Or telescoping.
What is the easiest way ? What is the shortest way ?
Observe \begin{align} \sum^n_{k=3}\frac{2k}{n^2+k^2+1} = \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2(k/n)}{1+n^{-2}+(k/n)^2} \end{align} then we have \begin{align} \frac{1}{1+n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2k/(1+n)}{1+k^2(1+n)^{-2}} \leq \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2(k/n)}{1+n^{-2}+k^2n^{-2}} \leq \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2(k/n)}{1+k^2n^{-2}}. \end{align} Hence it follows \begin{align} \int^1_0 \frac{2x}{1+x^2} \ dx=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{1+n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2k/(1+n)}{1+k^2(1+n)^{-2}} \leq \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2(k/n)}{1+n^{-2}+k^2n^{-2}} \leq \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2(k/n)}{1+k^2n^{-2}} = \int^1_0 \frac{2x}{1+x^2}\ dx \end{align} which means \begin{align} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\sum^n_{k=3} \frac{2k}{1+k^2+n^2} = \int^1_0 \frac{2x}{1+x^2}\ dx = \log 2. \end{align}