Show that the following logical expression is universally valid.
$$ (p \lor (q \land r)) \land p \iff ( \neg p \lor (q \land r) \implies p) $$
Here's what I tried so far:
$$[ \ (p \lor (q \land r)) \land p \iff ( \neg p \lor (q \land r) \implies p) \ ]^{\displaystyle \beta } = T$$
Using the definition of $ \iff$, I get
$$ [ \ (p \lor (q \land r)) \land p \ ]^{\displaystyle \beta } = \ [ \ ( \neg p \lor (q \land r) \implies p) \ ]^{\displaystyle \beta } = T $$
Now I would have to distinguish between two cases, namely when $\displaystyle \beta(p) = T$ and when $\displaystyle \beta(p) = F$ and here is my problem. When I start to show the first case, I end up getting $[ \ (p \lor (q \land r)) \land p \ ]^{\displaystyle \beta } = [ \ p \lor (q \land r) \ ]^{\displaystyle \beta }$ but I don't know how I got rid of the $ \ \land p \ $ operation.
We have $$ \begin{array}{|c|c|c| c|c|c| c|} \hline p & q & r & q\land r & p \lor (q\land r) & (p \lor (q\land r))\land p \\\hline T & T & T & T & T & T \\\hline T & T & F & F & T & T \\\hline T & F & T & T & T & T \\\hline T & F & F & F & T & T \\\hline F & T & T & T & T & F \\\hline F & T & F & F & F & F \\\hline F & F & T & F & F & F \\\hline F & F & F & F & F & F \\\hline \end{array} $$ and $$ \begin{array}{|c|c|c| c|c|c|c| c|} \hline p & q & r & \lnot p & (q\land r) & ( \neg p \lor (q \land r)) & ( \neg p \lor (q \land r)) \implies p \\\hline T & T & T & F & T & T & T \\\hline T & T & F & F & F & F & T \\\hline T & F & T & F & F & F & T \\\hline T & F & F & F & F & F & T \\\hline F & T & T & T & T & T & F \\\hline F & T & F & T & F & T & F \\\hline F & F & T & T & F & T & F \\\hline F & F & F & T & F & T & F \\\hline \end{array} $$