Show that sentence $ ∃x∀y∃z((F(y, z) → F(x, z)) → (F(x, x) → F(y, x))) $ is true in every finite model but it is not a valid formula

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∃x∀y∃z((F(y, z) → F(x, z)) → (F(x, x) → F(y, x)))

How can I show for this formula that it is true in every finite model but it isn't a valid formula?

Can someone please help me solve this problem/send me the proof/send me links of books where I can find a proof of this problem?

Thank you in advance!