Show that $\sum_{n=3}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(\log \log n)^{\log \log n}}\quad $ diverges.

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This problem comes from Apostol's Ex. 8.15

Show that $\sum_{n=3}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(\log \log n)^{\log \log n}} \;$ diverges.

My attempt:

Note $ \log \log n$ is increasing and positive, so the term $a_n$ is decreasing and positive. Clearly, $\lim a_n = 0$. Thus, we can use the integral test. $$ \int^\infty_3 \frac{dx}{(\log \log x)^{\log \log x} } = \int^\infty_{\log\log 3} \frac{e^{e^u+1}du}{u^u} = \int^\infty_{\log\log 3} e^{e^u+1- u\log u} du. $$ Since $\lim (e^u +1 - u\log u) = \infty$, the integral clearly doesn't converge, thus the series diverges by the integral test.

Is my solution correct? Besides, I'd like to know other approaches different from the integral test. Thanks.

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Note that

\begin{align*} \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{1}{\log(\log(n))^{\log(\log(n))}}}{\frac{1}{n}} =&\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\log(\log(n))^{\log(\log(n))}}\\ =&\lim_{u \to \infty} \frac{e^{e^u}}{u^u}\\ =&\exp\left(\lim_{u \to \infty} (e^u-u \ln u)\right)\\ =&+\infty. \end{align*}

because if $\ln(x) < x$, then $e^x - x \ln x > e^x - x^2,$ and evidently $\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x-x^2 = +\infty.$ So by comparison with harmonic series, your series diverges.