Show that $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left( \frac{1}{n(n+1)} \right) = \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+ \;... $$ converges and find its sum.
My solution so far:
I am thinking about finding the partial sum first and show that the series converges since its finite partial sum converges.
Now
$$ S_N=\sum_{n=1}^N \left( \frac{1}{n(n+1)} \right)=\sum_{n=1}^N \left( \frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1} \right)=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\;...= \left( \frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{2} \right)+\left( \frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3} \right) + \;...+ \left( \frac{1}{N}-\frac{1}{N+1} \right)$$
but I don't know how to go on with this. Now $ \lim_{N \to\infty} \left( \frac{1}{N}-\frac{1}{N+1} \right)=0$ but the right answer should be $1$.
You're right that in the end $$\lim_{N\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1}{N}-\frac{1}{N+1}\right)=0$$ But this is not the sum itself, for this, note that $$\left(\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}\right)+\dots\\=1+\left(-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\right)+\dots$$