In my physics course this standard formula is used a lot without proof so it would be interesting to see a neat proof for it. From a previous thread by me I know the proof for
$\int x\mathrm{e}^{-\alpha x^2}\mathrm dx =\dfrac{-1}{2\alpha} \mathrm e^{-\alpha x^2}$ + Constant
which was kindly shown to me by a community member by means of the substitution $-\alpha x^2=u \Rightarrow -2\alpha x \mathrm dx=\mathrm du$, then $x\mathrm dx=\frac {-1}{2\alpha}\mathrm du$ such that
$\displaystyle\int xe^{-\alpha x^2}\,dx=\frac {-1}{2\alpha}\displaystyle\int e^u \mathrm du= \frac {-1}{2\alpha}\displaystyle e^{-\alpha x^2}+$C. Where C , $\alpha$$=$constants
The previous thread was simply a paradigm to set the scene for this question. I tried a similar approach to prove the formula in question by letting $u=-\alpha x^2$, but this does not get me anywhere, I have also tried doing it by parts but still without success.
Is there a simple way to prove $\int_{0}^{\infty} x^4\mathrm{e}^{-\alpha x^2}\mathrm dx =\dfrac{3}{8}{\left(\dfrac{\pi}{\alpha^5}\right)}^\frac{1}{2}$?
Note: This question is not strictly a duplicate of the thread asking to prove that $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^4\mathrm{e}^{-\alpha x^2}\mathrm dx =\dfrac{3}{4}{\left(\dfrac{\pi}{\alpha^5}\right)}^\frac{1}{2}$ as the limits are different in that post. But I acknowledge that it is almost the same thing.
Any proof will do.
Thank you.
Kindest Regards,
Blaze.
One way is to use 'Feynman's trick', and differentiate under the integral. Note $$\int_0^\infty x^4e^{-\alpha x^2}=\int_0^\infty \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \alpha^2}e^{-\alpha x^2}=\frac{\partial^2}{\partial \alpha^2}\int_0^\infty e^{-\alpha x^2}$$
Calculate the inner definite integral first, then differentiate it twice with respect to $\alpha$.