Show that $X_{n}=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{1}{k!}$ and $X_{n}=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \rho^{k}$ are Cauchy sequences.
I know that for each sequence I have to show the following:
"$\forall \epsilon>0 \text{ }\exists \text{ } N_{\epsilon}=N(\epsilon) \in \mathbb{N}$ s.t. $\forall n \geq N_{\epsilon}$ , $ \left | X_{n}-X_{m} \right | < \epsilon $"
1) For the first I have done the following:
$\left | X_{n}-X_{m} \right |=\left | \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{1}{k!}-\sum_{k=0}^{m} \frac{1}{k!} \right |= \left | \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!}\right | $
After this I want to use the fact that $\frac{1}{k!}\leq \frac{1}{2k}$ for $k\geq 3$, suppose that $m\geq n$, and get:
$= \left | \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!}\right | \leq \left | \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac{1}{2k}\right |=\left | \frac{1}{2(n+1)}+\frac{1}{2(n+2)}+\cdots +\frac{1}{2(m)}\right |$
then I have to bound this with a value that depends on n, on which I will impose that it is less or equal to $\epsilon$ and deduct the value of $N_{\epsilon}$ from there.
my guess so far is $\frac{m-n}{n}<\frac{m}{n} <\epsilon$
but this wont work because it is too big and I it should be "sufficiently" small (smaller than $\epsilon$).
2) For the second sequence I have done the following:
Since $0<\rho<1 \Rightarrow \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\rho^{k}=\frac{1}{1-\rho}=l $, then we have that
"$\forall \frac{\epsilon}{2}>0 \text{ }\exists \text{ } N'_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}}=N'(\frac{\epsilon}{2}) \in \mathbb{N}$ s.t. $\forall n \geq N'_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}}$ , $ \left | \sum_{k=0}^{n} \rho^{k}-l \right | < \frac{\epsilon}{2} $"
Let $ \epsilon>0$, I choose $N_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}}=N'_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}}$ . We want to show that $N_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}}$ works.
$\text{ if } n,m\geq N_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}} \Rightarrow$
$\left | X_{n}-X_{m} \right |=\left | \sum_{k=0}^{n} \rho^{k}-\sum_{k=0}^{m} \rho^{k}\right |< \left | \sum_{k=0}^{n} \rho^{k}-l+l-\sum_{k=0}^{m} \rho^{k}\right | \leq \left | \sum_{k=0}^{n} \rho^{k}-l\right |+\left | \sum_{k=0}^{m} \rho^{k}-l \right |<\frac{\epsilon}{2}+\frac{\epsilon}{2}=\epsilon$.
$\therefore N_{\frac{\epsilon}{2}} $ works.
Could you give me any suggestions for the first sequence? Is the second demonstration correct?
Thanks in advance for your help.
For the first we have that $\frac {1}{k!}<\frac {1}{k^2}$ for $k\geq 4$ and thus $\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac {1}{k!}\leq \sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac {1}{k^2}$ and $\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac {1}{k^2}$ converges and so the sequence $x_m=\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac {1}{k^2}$ is Cauchy, and thus $y_m=\sum_{k=n+1}^{m} \frac {1}{k!}$ is upper bounded by a Cauchy sequence,so $x_m$ is Cauchy(do your thing with $ε>0$).
For the second well done. But these sums converge and so there are Cauchy.You don't have to show that they are Cauchy with definition,unless you've benn asked too:)