If $y=(ax+b)^m,$ then show that $$y^{(n)}=\frac{m!a^n}{(m-n)!}(ax+b)^{m-n},$$
where $y^{(n)}$ is the $n$-th derivative of $y$ with respect to $x$.
They say $$y^{(n)}=\frac{m(m-1)(m-2)...(m-n+1)(m-n)!}{(m-n)!} (ax+b)^{m-n} \cdot a^n$$
$$=\frac{m!a^n}{(m-n)!} (ax+b)^{m-n} \cdot a^n$$
I couldn't understand second line. Usually, I didn't solve many problems with factorial. That's why I don't have much more knowledge of factorial. I didn't understand what it ($(m-n)!$) was converted in second line. Where did $a$ come from?
Comment:
In (1) we derivate with respect to $x$ noting that the inner derivative of $ax+b$ gives a factor $a$.
In (2) down to (3) we derivate successively and see two patterns emerging: A factor $m(m-1)\cdots (m-n+1)$ and according to $n$-times doing inner derivation a factor $a^n$.
We recall the definition of $m!=m\cdot (m-1)\cdot (m-2)\cdots 3\cdot 2\cdot 1$. We consider the inner factor $m-n+1$ of $m!$ and group $m!$ accordingly to get \begin{align*} m!&=m\cdot (m-1)\cdot (m-2)\cdots 3\cdot 2\cdot 1\\ &=m\cdot(m-1)\cdot(m-2)\cdots (m-n+1)\\ &\qquad\qquad\cdot\color{blue}{\left((m-n)\cdot (m-n-1)\cdots 3\cdot 2\cdot1\right)}\\ &=m\cdot(m-1)\cdot(m-2)\cdots (m-n+1)\cdot \color{blue}{(m-n)!}\tag{4} \end{align*}