Let $(Z_t)_{t\in \mathbb{N}}$ be bounded and r.v. and assume $(Z_t)_{t\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a martingale with $\mathcal{F}_{n}=\sigma(Z_1,\dots ,Z_n)$. Show that $$\mathbb{E}((Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(Z_{l+1}-Z_l))=0$$
I'm struggling with this exercise. I made multiple attempts such as:
Let $n>l$ then
$$\mathbb{E}((Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(Z_{l+1}-Z_l))=\mathbb{E}((Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1})-\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l})))$$ $$=\mathbb{E}((Z_{n+1}\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1})-Z_n\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1})-Z_{n+1}\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l})-Z_n\mathbb{E}(Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l}))$$
But this is always where I get stucked.
If $n>l$, then $$ \mathbb{E}[(Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(Z_{l+1}-Z_l)]=\mathbb{E}[\mathbb{E}[(Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(Z_{l+1}-Z_l)\mid\mathcal{F}_{l+1}]]=\mathbb{E}[(Z_{l+1}-Z_l)\mathbb{E}[Z_{n+1}-Z_n\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1}]]$$ since $Z_{l+1}-Z_l$ is $\mathcal{F}_{l+1}$-measurable. And since $\{Z_n\}$ is a martingale and $n\geq l+1$, we have $$ \mathbb{E}[Z_{n+1}-Z_n\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1}]=\mathbb{E}[Z_{n+1}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1}]-\mathbb{E}[Z_{n}\mid \mathcal{F}_{l+1}]=Z_{l+1}-Z_{l+1}=0$$ hence $\mathbb{E}[(Z_{n+1}-Z_n)(Z_{l+1}-Z_l)]=0$.