I'm trying to solve this problem but the textbook has very airy explanations regarding how to do so. I think I can do the first part by just checking off that the 4 axioms of inner products hold.
I'm unsure what the second part is even asking.
Let $L^2((0,1))$ be the space of integrable functions such that $\int_0^1f(t)^2dt<\infty$. Show that $<f|g> = \int_0^1f(t)g(t)dt$ defines an inner product on $L^2((0,1))$.
Show that $B={sin(2{\pi}nt)}_{n\epsilon N}$ is a family of orthogonal vectors with respect to this scalar product.
Any help is appreciated. Thanks.
We need to prove that $\langle\sin(2\pi mt), \sin(2\pi nt)\rangle=0$ i.e. $$\int_0^1 \sin(2\pi nt)\sin(2\pi mt)dt=0,$$ for $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$, $m \neq n$.
Computing the indefinite integral gives us $$\int \sin(2\pi nt)\sin(2\pi mt)dt=\frac{\frac{\sin(2\pi t(m-n))}{m-n}-\frac{\sin(2\pi t(m+n))}{m+n}}{4\pi}+C, \: C \in \mathbb{R},$$ so $$\int_0^1 \sin(2\pi nt)\sin(2\pi mt)dt=\frac{1}{4\pi}\left[ \frac{sin(2\pi(m-n))}{m-n}-\frac{\sin(2\pi(m+n))}{m+n}\right]=\frac{1}{4\pi}(0+0)=0.$$ Remeber that $\sin(2\pi k)=0$, for every $k \in \mathbb{Z}$.