I'm reading this answer, in which, one of the step involves showing that:
$$s_3(r_1s_2-r_2s_1)=0,\quad s_1(r_2s_3-r_3s_2)=0\implies s_2(r_1s_3-r_3s_1)=0$$
I am utterly confused on how this implication was arrived at. How does having the "s" prefactor make it any more possible to show the implication then if it doesn't?
I think there is a problem of notation on the answer that you cited. You have to prove that if $(r_1,s_1)\sim (r_2,s_2)$ and $(r_2,s_2)\sim (r_3,s_3)$ then $(r_1,s_1)\sim (r_3,s_3)$.
$(r_1,s_1)\sim (r_2,s_2)$ implies there exists $x\in S$ such that $x(r_1s_2-s_1r_2)=0$;
$(r_2,s_2)\sim (r_3,s_3)$ implies there exists $y\in S$ such that $y(r_2s_3-s_2r_3)=0$.
Now consider $(r_1s_3-s_1r_3)$. By using the previous equations, you can observe that
$xys_2s_3(r_1s_3-s_1r_3)=xys_3^2s_1r_2-xys_1r_2s_3^2=0,$
where $xys_2s_3\in S$ since $S$ is a multiplicative set.
Therefore $(r_1,s_1)\sim (r_3,s_3)$ and you are done.