Compute all real-valued functions $f$ so that the line between any two points on the graph $f$ intersects the $x$-axis at the product of those two points' $x$-coordinates times $-1$.
(if we do some simplifing, we just need all functions so that $\frac{f(a)-f(b)}{a-b}\cdot(-a)+f(a)=-ab$ for all points $a$ and $b$)
We can immediately see that $f(x)=x^2$ works, and we can also see that $f(0)=0$. If we assume $x$ to be a polynomial and let $f(x)=x\cdot Q(x)$, then we can do some manipulation and see that $\frac{Q(a)-Q(b)}{a-b}=1$, from which we see that $Q(x)=x+c$ an we can easily find $f(x)=x^2$ is the only solution.
But what if $f$ is not a polynomial (and we cant suppose $f(x)=x\cdot Q(x)$)? Looking at the Taylor Polynomial of $f$, it would appear that this case fails too, but I cannot rigorously prove it.
Thanks
A common trick is to consider the difference of any two such functions. In this case, let $h(x) = f(x) - g(x)$, where $f$ and $g$ both satisfy your functional equation. Then we can determine that $\displaystyle \frac{h(a)-h(b)}{a-b}(-a)+h(a) = 0$, and hence $ah(b) = bh(a)$ for all $a$ and $b$. Substituting in $1$ for $b$, we get $h(a) = ah(1)$, and thus $h(x) = cx$ for some constant $c$. Since $f(x) = x^2$ is a solution, all solutions must therefore be polynomials of the form $f(x) = x^2 + cx$.
Edit: Originally this said to apply the OP's earlier work at this point, but all such functions $f(x) = x^2+cx$ are in fact solutions to the functional equation in question, as one can check by substituting.