Apparently this is just a simple proof with prerequisites for the domain to be a star-like domain.
See picture below for proof:
I don't however understand why
$\operatorname{Curl} F = 0$ means that we could replace:
$(\frac{\partial}{\partial \xi})F_{2}(\xi,\eta,\zeta) $
with
$(\frac{\partial}{\partial \eta})F_{1}(\xi,\eta,\zeta) $
and
$(\frac{\partial}{\partial \xi})F_{3}(\xi,\eta,\zeta) $
with
$(\frac{\partial}{\partial \eta})F_{1}(\xi,\eta,\zeta) $
