I looked up Wikipedia, and on the top of the page it says:

For every indexed family $(S_i)_{i \in I}$ of nonempty sets, there exists an indexed family $(x_i)_{i \in I}$ of elements such that $x_i \in S_i$, for every $i\in I$
Then when I scroll down a bit, Wikipedia switches the definition to:
For any set $X$ of nonempty sets, there exists a choice function $f$ defined on $X$
The top definition seems to be easy and intuitive. Why obfusticate the picture with this new object called choice function?
Which of these should be considered the "working" definition of Axiom of Choice. When writing a math proof, or talking to a random stranger on the street, which statement of axiom of choice is preferable?
More concretely, you are writing a math paper on Axiom of choice and you want to first state its definition, which definition do you use and why?

The whole point of "indexed family" is that it is a function. It is a function mapping the index to some object.
So if you consider the first statement, it just says in a more complicated language that every family of non-empty sets has a choice function. Why more complicated? Because it requires the understanding that an indexed family is a function, whereas the second formulation requires just knowing what is a function.
If I had to define the axiom of choice formally, I'd opt for the simplest formulation in terms of "primitive notions". In the case of set theory, this means the following:
Or just the definition with a choice function. Talking about "indexed families" requires us to understand what that means in terms of sets; and one leading approach to axioms is simplicity: axioms should be simple, and require as least "interpreted structure" as possible.