I'm studying algebraic geometry (it is my first course), by following Mumford's Red Book, and now I'm stacked in some (probably silly) questions about schemes, more precisely in the section 7 of Chapter 2, about proper morphisms and finite morphisms.
Following the definition of proper morphism (i.e., a finite type morphism $f:X\rightarrow Y$ such that for any morphism $g:K\rightarrow Y$, where $K$ is a prescheme, the projection $p:X\times_{Y}K\rightarrow K$ is closed), the author make some simple statements, that I can't figure out completely:
In the definition of proper morphism, it is sufficient to look at affine $K$'s. Although it seems to be reasonable in face of many other properties I've seen so far, I don't know how to prove this statement without a deeper look at the topology of $X\times_{Y}K$.
Closed immersions are proper: Actually I can prove that a closed immersion is of finite type, but why it is universally closed?
The composition of proper morphisms is a proper morphism. Why?
For now I will try to figure out the statements of the rest of the section.
Thank you very much by your attention.
$$\begin{matrix}T\times_Z X & \to & X\\ \downarrow & & \downarrow \\ T\times_Z Y & \to & Y\\ \downarrow & & \downarrow\\ T & \to & Z\end{matrix}$$
So, the maps $T\times_Z X\to T\times_Z Y$ and $T\times_Z Y\to T$ are closed, and so is there composition.