Show that
$$\hat{\beta_1}=\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i(y_i-\bar{y})}{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i(x_i-\bar{x})}=\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i-\bar{x})(y_i-\bar{y})}{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i-\bar{x})^2}$$
I am learning simple linear regression and the text wants me to prove the above as an exercise. I am really just not sure where to begin. I don't have a solid grasp on how to simplify $\bar{x}$ and $\hat{x}$. Any help is appreciated!
Hint:
\begin{align}\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i-\bar{x})(y_i-\bar{y})&=\sum_{i=1}^nx_i(y_i-\bar{y})-\sum_{i=1}^n\bar{x}(y_i-\bar{y}) \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^nx_i(y_i-\bar{y})-\bar{x}\sum_{i=1}^n(y_i-\bar{y}) \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^nx_i(y_i-\bar{y})-\bar{x}(0) \\&= \sum_{i=1}^nx_i(y_i-\bar{y})\end{align}