I apologise for a repost, but my rep is not high enough to ask in a comment. But, in this question Simplify sum of factorials with mathematical induction I am confused how:
$$(n+1)!-1+(n+1)(n+1)! = -1+(n+1)!(1+(n+1))$$
I expect it's quite simple, but I couldn't for the life of me see the solution. Any help would be much appreciated.
First of all, the actual wording has only one free variable: $$(n+1)! -1+(n+1)\cdot(n+1)! = -1 + (n+1)!\cdot(1+n+1) = (n+2)! - 1$$ All that is used are the usual distributive law, note that $(n+1)!$ is an integer just like any other and the $!$ just binds the immediately preceeding integer, and the equation $$n! = n \cdot (n-1)!$$ Here is the same with some highlighting: $$\begin{align*} \color{red}{(n+1)!} \color{blue}{- 1} + (n+1) \cdot \color{red}{(n+1)!} & \stackrel{y = (n+1)!}= \color{red}y \color{blue}{-1}+(n+1)\cdot \color{red}y\\ & = \color{blue}{-1} + \color{red}y\cdot(1+(n+1))\\ & = \color{blue}{-1} + \color{red}{(n+1)!} \cdot (1 + (n+1)) \\ & = -1 +(n+1)! \cdot (n+2) \\ & = -1 + (n+2)! \end{align*}$$