Can the following expression further be simplified and expressed in terms of usual functions such as inverse hyperbolic or inverse trigonometric functions? $$ f(x) = i \left[ \ln(x+i)-\ln(x-i)-\ln(1+ix)+\ln(1-ix) \right] \, , $$ where $x\ge 0$ is a real number.
Inputs and ideas welcome. Thanks
Using the exponential form of $\tan{(x)}$ one can prove that $$\arctan{(x)}=\frac{i}2(\ln{(1-ix)}-\ln{(1+ix)})$$ Using the principal valued logarithm we can write $$\ln{(1+ix)}=\ln{(x-i)}+\ln{(i)}=\ln{(x-i)}+\frac{i\pi}2$$ $$\ln{(1-ix)}=\ln{(x+i)}+\ln{(-i)}=\ln{(x+i)}-\frac{i\pi}2$$ Hence we can rewrite the inverse tangent function as $$\begin{align} \arctan{(x)} &=\frac{i}2\left(\ln{(x+i)}-\frac{i\pi}2-\left(\ln{(x-i)}+\frac{i\pi}2\right)\right)\\ &=\frac{i}2\left(\ln{(x+i)}-\ln{(x-i)}-i\pi\right)\\ &=\frac{\pi}2+\frac{i}2\left(\ln{(x+i)}-\ln{(x-i)}\right)\\ \end{align}$$ Hence the given function is $$f(x)=2\left(\arctan{(x)}-\frac{\pi}2\right)+2\arctan{(x)}=4\arctan{(x)}-\pi$$