Let $0 < \lambda_1 \leq \lambda_2 \leq \ldots \leq \lambda_n$ and let $f: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$ define by
$$ f(x) = \frac{1}{2}x^TMx $$ where M is \begin{bmatrix} \lambda_1 & 0 & \dots \\ 0 & \lambda_2 & 0 & \dots \\ \vdots & 0 & \ddots & 0 & \dots \\ & \vdots \\ & & & & \lambda_n \end{bmatrix}
To use gradient descent with exact minimization we define $t_k = \frac{||\nabla f(x)||^2}{\nabla f(x)^TM\nabla f(x)}$ and $x_{k+1} = x_k - t_k \nabla f(x_k)$.
Given $x_0 = [{\lambda_1}^{-1},0, \ldots ,0, {\lambda_n}^{-1}]^T$ I would like to show that. $$ f(x_{k+1}) = \bigg(\frac{\lambda_n - \lambda_1}{\lambda_n + \lambda_1}\bigg)^2 f(x_k)$$.
I have tried both an induction argument and just expanding $f(x_{k+1})$ to get the result but I have not had any success. If someone can see how to complete the proof I would be really interested to see.
Let $M$ be a symmetric positive definite matrix. If $f(x)=\frac{1} {2}x^{\intercal}Mx$, then $\nabla f(x)=Mx$. The gradient descent iteration for $f$ is $$ x_{k+1}\equiv x_{k}-t_{k}\nabla f(x_{k})=\left(I-t_{k}M\right)x_{k}. $$ At each step, we would like to pick $t_{k}$ such that $$ f(x_{k+1})=\frac{1}{2}\left(M^{\frac{1}{2}}\left(I-t_{k}M\right)x_{k}\right)^{\intercal}\left(M^{\frac{1}{2}}\left(I-t_{k}M\right)x_{k}\right) $$ is minimized. Differentiating, $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t_{k}}\left[f(x_{k+1})\right]=t_{k}x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{3}x_{k}-x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{2}x_{k}. $$ Setting this to zero and solving for $t_k$ we get $$ t_{k}=\frac{x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{2}x_{k}}{x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{3}x_{k}}=\frac{\left(Mx_{k}\right)^{\intercal}\left(Mx_{k}\right)}{\left(Mx_{k}\right)^{\intercal}M\left(Mx_{k}\right)}=\frac{\left\Vert \nabla f(x_{k})\right\Vert ^{2}}{\nabla f(x_{k})^{\intercal}M\nabla f(x_{k})} $$ (the same exact expression in your original question). Note that the above is well-defined since $x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{3}x_{k}=(Mx_{k})^{\intercal}M(Mx_{k})>0$ by the positive definiteness of $M$. Substituting the expression for $t_{k}$ back into $f(x_{k+1})$, $$ f(x_{k+1})=\frac{1}{2}\left(x_{k}^{\intercal}Mx_{k}-\frac{\left(x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{2}x_{k}\right)^{2}}{x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{3}x_{k}}\right)=f(x_{k})-\frac{1}{2}\frac{\left(x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{2}x_{k}\right)^{2}}{x_{k}^{\intercal}M^{3}x_{k}}. $$ Or, more succinctly, $$ \boxed{f(x_{k+1}) = f(x_k) - \frac{(f(M^{\frac{1}{2}} x_k))^2}{f(M x_k)}}. $$
Now, take $M=\text{diag}(2,3,5)$ and $x_{0}=(1/2, 1/3, 1/5)^\intercal$. Then, $f(x_{0})=31/60$ and $f(x_{1})=1/15$. However, $$\left(\frac{5-2}{5+2}\right)^{2} \frac{31}{60} \neq \frac{1}{15}.$$ Therefore, I don't think your claim is true. Perhaps you meant something else?