I am trying to find the extrema of the integral below $$ I= \int_0^1 y^2 \mathrm dx $$ under the conditions $$ \int_0^1 \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 \mathrm dx =1 $$ and y(0)=y(1)=0
Using Lagrange multiplier λ, equivalently, I can find the extrema of the below quantity $$ I*= \int_0^1 y^2 \mathrm dx+λ\int_0^1 \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^2 \mathrm dx $$ Since there is not explicit dependence on x, by using beltrami identity $$ F-y'\frac{\partial F}{\partial y'} = C $$ the problem above reduced to the solution of the 2nd order differential equation $$ 2λ(y’)^2y’’-λ(y')^{2}- y^{2}-c=0. $$ And after the substitution u=dy/dx The second order differential equation above become the first order one below $$ 2λu^{3}u’-λ(u)^{2}- y^{2}-c=0. $$ where the differentiation refers to y. And here is where I got stuck. Can someone give me some hint on how I can procced with that equation?
Many thanks in advance!
The Beltrami equation can not contain a second derivative, where should it come from? It should evaluate to $$ y^2-λy'^2=C $$ which easily leads to solutions in terms of trigonometric or hyperpolic functions.