The following integral equation often appears in the books and it has once been asked in the prestigious examination called IIT JEE (M) dated 10-04-2016. The question is: $\forall x \in R-\{0\}$, if $y(x)$ is differentiable function such that $$ x\int_{1}^{x}~ y(t)~dt =(x+1) \int_{1}^{x} t ~y(t)~dt.$$ Find $y(x)$. Some four interesting expression of $y(x)$ were given as alternatives in this MCQ type question.
Solving this you may find a serious flaw in this question.
I would like to thank Ninad Sutrave for expressing a doubt about this question.
The flaw in the question is that $y(x) = 0$ obviously satisfies the equation and is everywhere differentiable. So without doing any math I can provide an answer.
Or at least, that seems to be the flaw. But $y(x) = 0$ is also the unique solution to the problem. To see this, consider a function $Y(x)$ that satisfies $Y''(x) = y(x)$. Do some FTC and integration by parts and you get $$ x^2 Y'(x) -(x+1)Y(x) = Y'(1) - (1+x)Y(1). $$ Differential equation solves to $$ Y(x) = C\,xe^{-1/x} + Y(1) + (x-1)Y'(1), $$ which can only be satisfied if $C = 0$. Thus, $y(x) = Y''(x) = 0$.
Differentiating both sides twice gives an equation that solves to $y(x) = Ce^{-1/x}/x^3$, but plugging that back into the original equation also gives $C = 0$.
So while the fact that this is the solution may be a flaw in the question, it does seem to be well-posed, in the sense that the solution is unique.