The equation being : $$ f(x) + f(y) = f\left(\frac{x+y}{1-xy}\right) $$ The most obvious answer is, $$f(x) = C\arctan x$$ but there is another possible answer e.i $$ f(x) = \log\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right) $$ which i am unable to get by the process i have provided. First substituting: $$ x = y = 0 \Rightarrow f(0) = 0$$ then partially differentiating the original equation wrt to $x$ and then $y$ individually (provided $x \ne y$), we'll get : $$ f'(x) = f'\left(\frac{x+y}{1-xy}\right)\frac{1+y^2}{(1-xy)^2} - (i)$$ $$ f'(y) = f'\left(\frac{x+y}{1-xy}\right)\frac{1+x^2}{(1-xy)^2} - (ii)$$ diving equations $i$ by $ii$ we get $$ \frac{f'(x)}{f'(y)} = \frac{1+y^2}{1+x^2}$$ $$ \Rightarrow f'(x)\left(1+x^2\right) = f'(y)\left(1+y^2\right)$$ which is only possible if the above equation is equal to some constant $c$, since $x \neq y$ $$ f'(x)\left(1+x^2\right) = C $$ $$ \Rightarrow f'(x) = \frac{C}{1+x^2} $$ $$ \Rightarrow f(x) = \int \frac{C}{1+x^2} = C \arctan x + K $$ since $f(0) = 0, k = 0$ $$ \therefore f(x) = C \arctan x $$
Also, when do i know that there is no more functions that satisfy the original equation ?
You should be able to say that there is only one differentiable solution (which you found) based on the uniqueness theorems for ODEs.
You can also check that $f$ is odd to conclude that the logarithm cannot be a solution.
As far as non-smooth solutions, I'm not sure there is any general way to decide if there are any. But perhaps someone else knows more about this topic.