Suppose $f(x):[0,\infty)\longrightarrow [0,\infty)$ satisfies $$f(x+1)>(f(x))^2-f(x)+1$$ for sufficiently large values of $x$.
Can we solve this functional inequality or get some good information about it? We can put some conditions like $f$ is continuous if necessary.
Here is a family of solutions: $f_{a,b}(x)=a^{b^x}$, where $a>1$ and $b\geq 2$.
Proof: if $x \geq 0$, then $$ f_{a,b}(x+1)=a^{b^{x+1}}=a^{bb^x}\geq a^{2b^x}=(a^{b^x})^2>(a^{b^x})^2-a^{b^x}+1 =(f_{a,b}(x))^2-f_{a,b}(x)+1.\quad\square $$