Solving for wealth gamble indifference

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I don’t think this should be too hard but I’m having a harder time with it than I thought.

Let $u(w) = \frac{1}{\gamma}w^{\gamma}$

The equation I want to solve is this (where $\pi$ is a variable and not a constant).

$u(w-\pi) = \frac{1}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]$

--edit--

I’d like to solve for $\pi$

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Firstly we have to insert $w-\pi$ into the utility function.

$u(w-\pi) = \frac{1}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]$

$\frac1{\gamma}(w-\pi)^{\gamma} = \frac{1}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]$

Multiplying the equation by $\gamma$.

$(w-\pi)^{\gamma} = \frac{\gamma}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]$

Taking the $\gamma$-th root on both sides of the equation.

$w-\pi = \left(\frac{\gamma}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]\right)^{\frac1\gamma}$

Multiplying the equation by $(-1)$.

$\pi-w = -\left(\frac{\gamma}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]\right)^{\frac1\gamma}$

Adding $w$.

$$\pi = w-\left(\frac{\gamma}{2}[u(w-x)+u(w+x)]\right)^{\frac1\gamma}$$

Finally you can you can replace $u(w-x)$ and $u(w+x)$ by $\frac1{\gamma}(w-x)^{\gamma}$ and $\frac1{\gamma}(w+x)^{\gamma}$, respectively.