Let a function $f(x)$, and $x$ not equal to zero be such that: $f(x)+f(1/x)=f(x)\cdot f(1/x)$ then $f(x)$ is ?
I tried differentiating it but did not find any useful outcome. answer given at back of book is
A)$1+x^n$, $n$ belongs to $\mathbb R$
B)$1-x^n$, $n$ belongs to $\mathbb R$
C)$\pi/(2\arctan|x|)$
D)$2/(1+k\ln|x|) $

Assuming $f(x)$ to be a polynomial, \begin{align*} (f(x)-1)\left(f\left(\frac1x\right)-1\right)&=1\\ (a_0^\prime+a_1x+\cdots a_nx^n)\left(a_0^\prime+\frac{a_1}x+\cdots \frac{a_n}{x^n}\right)&=1\\ \end{align*} is only possible when there is only one term in the brackets, i.e. $f(x)-1=\pm x^n$.
PS: I think this might help to generalize $f(x)$.