Let $H$ be a Hilbert space with an orthonormal base $e_i$ and $L$ the left shift operator $L\in B(H)$: $(x_1, x_2, \dots) \mapsto (x_2, x_3, \dots)$.
I computed the spectrum could someone please tell me if this is right?
My work:
$\lambda \in \sigma (L)$ if and only if there exists $x \in H$ ($x\neq 0$) such that $$ (L-\lambda)(x) = (x_2 - \lambda x_1, x_3 - \lambda x_2, \dots) = 0$$
If $\lambda = 0$ then it quickly follows that $x=0$. For $\lambda \neq 0$ this is true if and only if $x$ is of the form $(x_1,\lambda x_1, \lambda^2 x_1, \dots)$.
Hence $\sigma (L) = \mathbb C \setminus \{0\}$.
First, in general case the spectrum consists of much more than eigenvalues: the resolvent set is $$R(L)=\{z\in\Bbb C: L-zI \text{ is continuously invertible}\}$$ and $$\sigma(L)=\overline{\Bbb C\setminus R(L)}.$$
Second, in your case, you can explicitly write $$(L-zI)x = (x_2-zx_1,x_3-zx_2,\ldots).$$
Fix $z\in \Bbb C$. If for an arbitrary $\epsilon>0$ you can find an $x \in H$ such that $\|x ,H\|=1$ and $\|Lx -zx ,H\|\le \epsilon$, then this value of $z$ is not in the resolvent set.
The trivial case $z=0$ is done by taking $x=(1,0,0,\ldots)$, which gives $\|Lx\|=0$, therefore $0\in\sigma(L)$.
Can you take it from here?