2-37
(a) Let $f:\mathbb{R^2}\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Show that $f$ is $not\mbox{ 1-1}$. $Hint:$ If, for example, $D_1f(x,y)\neq0$ for all $(x,y)$ in some open set $A$, then consider $g:A\to\mathbb{R^2}$ defined by $g(x,y) = (f(x,y),y)$.
(b) Generalize this result to the case of a continuously differentiable function $f:\mathbb{R^n}\to\mathbb{R^m}$ with $m<n$.
I want to solve (b) analogously to (a), so here I first present my solution to (a).
If $D_1f(x,y) = 0$ for any $(x,y)\in\mathbb{R^2}$, then $f(x_1, y) = f(x_2,y)$ for any $x_1, x_2\in\mathbb{R}$; hence, $f$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$. Otherwise, there is $(x,y)$ such that $D_1f(x,y)\neq 0$. Then $g:\mathbb{R^2}\to\mathbb{R^2}$ defined as in the hint is continuously differentiable and $$\det g'(x,y) = \det\left(\begin{smallmatrix}D_1f(x,y)&D_2f(x,y)\\0&1\end{smallmatrix}\right) = D_1f(x,y)\neq0,$$ so it satisfies the conditions for the inverse function theorem. Thus, there are open $V\ni (x,y)$ and $W\ni g(x,y)$ such that $g:V\to W$ is $\mbox{1-1}$. For some unequal $(u,y_1),(u,y_2)\in W$ we get unequal $(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)\in V$ such that $f(x_1,y_1) = f(x_2,y_2) = u$; hence, $f$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$.
I have three ideas on how to interpret the $D_1f$ from (a) in (b):
- as $D_1f^1$,
- as $D_1f$,
- as $\det\left(\begin{smallmatrix}D_1f^1(x)&\dots&D_mf^1(x)\\\vdots&\ddots&\vdots \\D_1f^m(x)&\dots&D_mf^m(x) \end{smallmatrix}\right)$;
but neither of them seem to work.
By assuming $D_1f^1(x)\neq 0$ for some $x$ and defining $g:\mathbb{R^n\to\mathbb{R^n}}$ by $g(x^1,...,x^n) = (f^1(x), x^2,...,x^n)$ I can prove that $f^1$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$. Similarily, any $f^i$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$, but it doesn't show that $f$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$.
By assuming $D_1f(x)\neq 0$ for some $x$ and defining $g:\mathbb{R^n\to\mathbb{R^n}}$ by $g(x^1,...,x^n) = (f(x), x^{m+1},...,x^n)$ I get $$\det g'(x) = \det\left(\begin{smallmatrix}D_1f^1(x)&\dots&D_nf^1(x)\\\vdots&\ddots&\vdots \\D_1f^m(x)&\dots&D_nf^m(x)\\O_{m\times m}&&E_{(n-m)\times (n-m)} \end{smallmatrix}\right) = \det\left(\begin{smallmatrix}D_1f^1(x)&\dots&D_mf^1(x)\\\vdots&\ddots&\vdots \\D_1f^m(x)&\dots&D_mf^m(x) \end{smallmatrix}\right);$$ but I cannot show that it's not equal to $0$ at some point $x$ to use the theorem.
I want to define $g$ as in 2. but I cannot show why $f$ is not $\mbox{1-1}$, when $$\det\left(\begin{smallmatrix}D_1f^1(x)&\dots&D_mf^1(x)\\\vdots&\ddots&\vdots \\D_1f^m(x)&\dots&D_mf^m(x) \end{smallmatrix}\right) = 0$$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R^n}$. The third one seems the most promising to me but I don't how to proceed. Do you have any tips?
The appropriate way to think about the generalization is as follows: If the rank of $Df(x^1,\dots,x^n)$ is $m$ on some open set, then you can renumber your variables and write them as $x=(x^1,\dots,x^m)$, $y=(x^{m+1},\dots,x^n)$ to make the identical proof work.
However, you don't quite have the tools to finish. You will need the constant rank theorem (see Rudin or Spivak's A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry, volume 1, Theorem 9 on p. 42) to proceed. If the rank is everywhere $<m$, find a point $a\in\Bbb R^n$ where it's a maximum (say rank $r<m$), and proceed apply the rank theorem on a neighborhood of $a$.