The author defines the probability integral as follows $$\Phi(z)=\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\int_0^z e^{-t^2}\mathrm{d}t$$. (S)he instructs the reader to derive the following integral representation of the square of the probability integral by transforming it to polar coordinates $$\Phi(z)^2=1-\frac{4}{\pi}\int_0^1\frac{\exp(-z^2(1+t^2))}{1+t^2}\mathrm{d}t$$. I am uncertain how transforming the integral from cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates would yield the integral representation. Can someone explain this to me? $$I^2=\frac{4}{\pi}\int_{0}^{z}\int_{0}^{z}e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dydx=-\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^\frac{\pi}{2}\int_{0}^{z}-2re^{-r^2}drd\theta$$?
2026-04-30 05:04:45.1777525485
Square of the Error Function
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$\operatorname{erf}(z)^2$ can be expressed as an integral over the region $[0,z]\times[0,z]$. By symmetry, you can calculate half of its value by looking at the lower half triangle (i.e. with the additional bound $y\leq x$). I believe the correct coordinate transformation is $R=x^2+y^2, t=\frac yx$ (you could think of the former as $r^2$ and the latter as $\tan\theta$ in polar coordinates). Express the region in the new coordinates, calculate the Jacobian, and the result should follow.
Full solution: $\def\pdv#1#2{\frac{\partial #1}{\partial #2}}$