Given that $X$ has mean $a$ and variance $b$. Then $E(X^2) = a^2 + b^2$. Why is this true? Please provide a proof alongside any other relevant information. Thanks in advance.
2026-04-08 12:48:40.1775652520
Statistics basics
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2
This is purely a matter of definitions: recall that $Var(X)=E(X^2)-E(X)^2$. Try to conclude from there based on what you know. Also they might have meant that variance is actually $b^2$, not $b$.