I'm trying to solve this problem and don't know where to start. If someone could prove it or tell me how or point me to any relevant information I'd very much appreciate it.
Let $(s_n)_{n\geq0}$ be a 1-dimensional, unbiased random walk. For $a\in\mathbb Z^{*}$, let $T_a=\inf\left\{n\geq0:s_n=a\right\}$. Prove that $\mathbb E(T_a)=\infty$.
If we restrict to $a\in\mathbb Z^+$, the expected first hitting time $t_a=\mathbb E(T_a)$ has to satisfy the recurrence
$$ t_a=1+\frac12\left(t_{a-1}+t_{a+1}\right)\;. $$
Since we can solve this for $t_{a+1}$, there can't be a least $a$ for which $t_a$ is infinite, so $t_a$ is either finite for all $a$ or infinite for all $a$. If it's finite for all $a$, it has to solve the above recurrence. The solutions are $t_a=-a^2+ma+n$, which would imply negative first hitting times for sufficiently large $a$. It follows that $t_a$ is infinite for all $a$.