Study the uniform convergence of the integral $$\int_0^\infty\frac{\sin \alpha x}{\alpha^2+x^2}\mathrm{d}x,\quad \alpha\in(0,+\infty)$$
I have tried the Weierstrass criterion, but $\int_0^\infty\frac{1}{\alpha^2+x^2}\mathrm{d}x$ does not converge. Then I tried the Dirichlet criterion, but $\int_0^A \sin \alpha x$ are not bounded uniformly. So I turned to prove it does not converge uniformly. My attempt are as follows
$\forall A>1$, choose $\alpha=\frac{\pi}{4A}$ then $\forall x\in[A, 2A]$ $$ \left|\int_A^{2A}\frac{\sin \alpha x}{\alpha^2+x^2}\mathrm{d}x\right|>\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\frac{1}{\alpha}(\arctan\frac{2A}{\alpha}-\arctan\frac{A}{\alpha}) $$ but I cannot find a lower bound of RHS, so the method seems do not work.
Is my way wrong? You can also suggest your way. Appreciate any help!
You can use Dirichlet's Criterion: Let $f\colon (a, b) \to \mathbb{R}$ a monotone function on $(a, b)$ and $g\colon (a, b)\to \mathbb{C}$ an integrable function in $(a, t]$, for each $t\in (a, b)$. If $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to b} f(x) = 0$, and $\int_{a}^{t} g(x) dx$ is bounded for each $t \in (a, b)$, then $\int_{a}^{\to b} fg $ converges.
Taking $a = 0$, $b = \infty$, $f = \frac{1}{\alpha^2 + x^2}$ and $g = \sin \alpha x$ we have $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin \alpha x}{\alpha^2 + x^2} \quad \text{converges}$$