The question:
Alfonso and Colin each bought one raffle ticket at the state fair. If $50$ tickets were randomly sold, what is the probability that Alfonso got ticket $14$ and Colin got ticket $23$?
According to this, the answer should be $ \frac{1}{2450}$ which presumably comes from $\frac{1}{50}\times \frac{1}{49}$. But it seems that the order does not count. I did not assume that Alfonso got ticket $14$ first then Colin got ticket $23$ second.
Update: What is wrong with this reasoning. When I said that I did not assume order, I meant that it's possible
- Alfonso got ticket $14$ first, then Colin got ticket $23$,
- Colin got ticket $23$ first, then Alfonso got ticket $14$.
Both of these possibilities are possible before the tickets are given out, so we can make an 'or' statement. Label the event Alfonso got ticket $14$ by $A_{14} $ and Colin got ticket $23$ by $A_{23}$. Then by the addition rule
$ \Pr(\text{ ($A_{14}$ first and $C_{23}$ second) or ($C_{23}$ first and $A_{14}$ second}) ) \\ = \Pr(A_{14}) \times \Pr(C_{23} \mid A_{14}) + \Pr(C_{23}) \times \Pr(A_{14}\mid C_{23}) = \frac 1 {50} \times \frac 1 {49} \times 2.$
I realize that once the tickets are sold, then only one of $ \{ A_{14}C_{23}~ , ~ C_{23}A_{14} \}$ must occur, but before the tickets are sold both possibilities are plausible. Why would the probability change before and after the tickets are sold.
To say that order does not count means there is no difference between the following:
You found the probability that between them they got a certain set of two tickets. After they get those two tickets, there still the choice of which gets which, and there are two choices, each with (conditional) probability $1/2.$
You can also look at it like this: $$ \Pr(\text{Alfonso got }\#14) \times \Pr(\text{Colin got }\#23\mid \text{Alfonso got }\#14) = \frac 1 {50} \times \frac 1 {49}. $$