Let $a_{k} \in \mathbb{R}$ for each $k \in \mathbb{N}$
I'm trying to prove that if $\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} a_{k}\frac{\lambda^{k}}{k!} = 0$ for all $\lambda > 0 \implies a_{k} = 0 \forall k \in \mathbb{N}$
My attempt:
If all $a_{k}\geq0$ or all $a_{k}\leq0$ then it's holds
But when I try to make the general case I get stuck
If $a_{k} \not= 0$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$
Let $m = min\{k \in \mathbb{N} : a_{k} \not= 0\}$
Then $-a_{m}\frac{\lambda^{m}}{m!} = \sum_{k=m+1}^{\infty}a_{k}\frac{\lambda^{k}}{k!}$ for all $\lambda >0$
Supposed $a_{m} > 0$
Then $-\infty =\lim_{\lambda \to \infty} -a_{m}\frac{\lambda^{m}}{m!} = \lim_{\lambda \to \infty} \sum_{k=m+1}^{\infty}a_{k}\frac{\lambda^{k}}{k!}$
And I don't know how to continue
Differentiate! $$a_k=\Big(\frac{d}{d\lambda}\Big)^k\sum\cdots\big|_{\lambda=0}=0$$