I would like to evaluate the sum $$\sum_{k = 0}^{n}k\binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k} = \sum_{k}k\binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$$
(With $n$ integer)
This looks very close to $\sum_{k}\binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$, which is of course equal to $1$ (from Binomial Theorem, or probabilistic interpretation and most likely thousands of other reasons). How can the additional factor be handled?
As for $k\ge1,$ $$k\binom nk=\cdots=n\binom{n-1}{k-1}$$
$$\sum_{k=0}^nk\binom nkp^k(1-p)^{n-k}=np\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n-1}{k-1}p^{k-1}(1-p)^{n-1-(k-1)}=np(p+1-p)^{n-1}$$