I am trying to prove that for any $x\geq 1$ we have: $$ \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \frac{\sin\frac{(2m-1)\pi}{x}}{\left(\frac{(2m-1)\pi}{x}\right)^3} = \frac{x}{8}(x-1). $$
Could I have some help please? I am thinking that Fourier series could help, but I found nothing until now. Thank you very much!
Let $z=\frac{1}{x}$. We want to prove that over the interval $I=(0,1)$ we have:
$$ f(z)=\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{\sin((2m-1)\pi z)}{(2m-1)^3} = \frac{\pi^3}{8} z(1-z).\tag{1} $$ That is not so difficult, since: $$-\sum_{m=1}^{M}\frac{\sin((2m-1)\pi z)}{2m-1}\xrightarrow[L^2(0,1)]{}-\frac{\pi}{4},\tag{2} $$ so $f(z)$ is the Fourier series of a second-degree polynomial.
Since $f(0)=f(1)=0$, that polynomial is a multiple of $x(1-x)$, then $(1)$ follows from: $$ f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{(-1)^{m+1}}{(2m-1)^3}=\frac{\pi^3}{32}.\tag{3}$$ For a proof of the last identity, see this related question.
Notice that, if we know in advance what the RHS of $(1)$ should be, then it is enough to compute the Fourier series of $x(1-x)$ in $L^2(0,1)$ then check it matches the LHS, way easier.