Is the following statement true: $$\sum^k_{j=0} \left(\sum^j_{i=0}a_i b_{j-i}\right) d_{k-j} = \sum^k_{j=0} \left(\sum^j_{i=0}b_i d_{j-i}\right) a_{k-j}$$
I'm not sure if this is true as I've been unable to prove this directly. However, I think this is true.
If we fix $k$ and then $j$, we have fixed the subscript of $d$. So, there is a term $a_m b_n d_o$ on the LHS such that $m + n + o = k$.
However on the RHS, if we fix the same value of $k$ as above and strategically fix a different value of $j$ so that the subscript of $a$ is $m$, then we can find a particular $i$ such that we also have $a_m b_n d_o$. That is, the subscript of $b$ plus the subscript of $d$ on the RHS is equal to $j$, so we can find an $n$ and $o$ such that $n+o = k - m = j$.
If it is true, is there a more direct (or different) proof of this? If not, why is it not true?
Comment:
In (1) we write the index region somewhat more conveniently as preparation for the next step.
In (2) we exchange the order of summation by exchanging the sums.
In (3) we shift the index of the inner sum to start with $j=0$.
In (4) we exchange the notation $i\to j$ and $j\to i$.
In (5) we exchange the order of summation of the outer sum $j\to k-j$ and factor out $a_{k-j}$ from the inner sum.