I am trying to prove the following for a very, very long time:
$$\sum_{k=0}^j \frac{ (-1)^k}{k! (j-k)!} \frac{1}{2k+1} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{\Gamma(3/2 + j)}$$
or, equivalently
$$\sum_{k=0}^j \frac{ (-1)^k}{k! (j-k)!} \frac{1}{2k+1} = \frac{(j+1)! 4^{j+1}}{2\cdot (2(j+1))!}$$
I would be extremely happy if somebody could help me with this!
I don't know if this helps, but it looks like the obvious way to start:
Let $$f(x)=\sum_{k=0}^j{(-1)^kj!\over k!(j-k)!}{x^{2k+1}\over2k+1}$$ Then $f(0)=0$, and $f(1)=j!\times{\rm\ your\ sum}$. Differentiate: $$f'(x)=\sum_{k=0}^j{(-1)^kj!\over k!(j-k)!}x^{2k}=\sum_{k=0}^j{j\choose k}(-x^2)^k=(1-x^2)^j$$ so $$f(1)=\int_0^1(1-x^2)^j\,dx$$