Not a duplicate of
Validity of this proof: Prove that $\cup \mathcal{F} \subseteq \cap \mathcal{G}$
This is exercise $3.3.17$ from the book How to Prove it by Velleman $($$2^{nd}$ edition$)$:
Suppose $\mathcal F$ and $\mathcal G$ are nonempty families of sets, and every element of $\mathcal F$ is a subset of every element of $\mathcal G$. Prove that $\bigcup \mathcal F\subseteq \bigcap\mathcal G$.
Here is my proof:
Suppose $x$ is an arbitrary element of $\bigcup\mathcal F$. This means that we can choose some $A_0$ such that $A_0\in \mathcal F$ and $x\in A_0$. Let $B$ be an arbitrary element of $\mathcal G$. Since $\forall A\in\mathcal F\forall B\in\mathcal G(A\subseteq B)$, $A_0\subseteq B$. From $A_0\subseteq B$ and $x\in A_0$, $x\in B$. Thus if $B\in \mathcal G$ then $x\in B$. Since $B$ was arbitrary, $\forall B\Bigr(B\in\mathcal G\rightarrow x\in B\Bigr)$ and so $x\in\bigcap \mathcal G$. Therefore if $x\in \bigcup\mathcal F$ then $x\in\bigcap\mathcal G$. Since $x$ was arbitrary, $\forall x\Bigr(x\in \bigcup\mathcal F\rightarrow x\in\bigcap\mathcal G\Bigr)$ and so $\bigcup\mathcal F\subseteq\bigcap\mathcal G$. $Q.E.D.$
Is my proof valid$?$
Thanks for your attention.
Your proof is correct! Also I like it how you justify everything. You can also check this alternative approach:
In the first part we used that the intersection of a non-empty family of sets is the biggest element that is contained in each element of the family, and in the second part we used that the union of a family of sets is the smallest element that contains each member of the family.