so I came across this problem while studying and I just dont understand it...S is the smooth solid boundary of an object in R3, and v is its outward unit normal. l is fixed vector in R3. The angle between l and v is $\theta$. Prove:
$$\iint_S \cos(\theta) \;\mathrm{dS}=0$$
Now, I just dont understand this at all. The reason I dont understand is because $\cos \theta$ is not a vector or a scalar, it is just a value and is different for each unit normal. How can we take a surface integral of that?
I was thinking maybe it could be tied into the divergence theorem, which would make sense but I dont know how to make the leap from the divergence theorem and the 2 vectors there to the angle between them. Help!
Since $I$ is constant, we may assume it extends to a vector field defined on all of $\Bbb R^n$ (we don't need to restrict ourselves to $n = 3$). Also, since $I$ is constant, we have
$\text{div}(I) = \nabla \cdot I = 0; \tag 1$
furthermore, if $I \ne 0$,
$v \cdot I = \Vert I \Vert \cos \theta. \tag 2$
We now apply the divergence theorem to $I$ over the "object" $\mathscr O$ bounded by $S$:
$\displaystyle \Vert I \Vert \int_S \cos \theta \; dS = \int_S I \cdot v dS = \int_{\mathscr O} \nabla \cdot I dV = \int_{\mathscr O} 0 dV = 0, \tag 3$
the desired result, provided $I \ne 0$.
Divergence Theorem: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divergence_theorem