I need help with this problem:
Let $(S_n)_n$ a symmetric random walk in $\mathbb{Z}$ i.e $S_n=X_1 + \cdots + X_n$ with $(X_n)$ iid $\mathbb{P}(X_n=1)=\mathbb{P}(X_n=-1)=\frac{1}{2}$. Let $m \in \mathbb{Z}\setminus\{0\}$ and consider the random variable
$$V_m= \text{number of visits to } m \text{ in a excursion of X starting at 0 and ending at 0}$$
Prove that $\mathbb{P}(V_m \geq k)=\frac{1}{2|m|}\left(1-\frac{1}{2|m|}\right)^{k-1}$
My approach:
I consider the stopping times $T_0 = \inf\{n > 0 \colon \ X_n=0\}$ and $$T_m(1)=\inf\{n > 0 \colon \ X_n=m\}, \dots,T_m(k+1)=\inf\{n > T_m(k) \colon \ X_n=m\}$$ Then we have that the probability that we are seeking is $\mathbb{P}_0(T_m(k)<T_0)$.
I try to use that $X$ is martingale and $\min\{T_0,T_m(k)\}$ is stopping time but $X_{\min\{T,n\} }$ is not bounded and I fail. Then I try to use a similar approach but only with the stopping time $T_m(1)$ and I failed. And finally I try to prove by induction (and the strong Markov property) that $$\mathbb{P}_0(T_m(k)<T_0)=\frac{1}{2|m|}\left(1-\frac{1}{2|m|}\right)^{k-1}$$
(assuming $\mathbb{P}_0(T_m(1)<T_0)=\mathbb{P}_0(T_m(k)<T_0)=\frac{1}{2|m|}$ which is something that I haven't prove yet) And I failed.
Any help will be appreciated
One can decompose the final formula, this shows how the proof works. Assume wlog that $m\gt0$.
Thus, martingales are off topic in the sense that the only necessary tool, applied several times in conjunction with the strong Markov property, is that, for every integers $a\lt b\lt c$, $$P_b(T_c\lt T_a)=\frac{b-a}{c-a}.$$ But to show this, martingales are useful since, considering $T=T_a\wedge T_c$, the martingale $(S_{T\wedge n})$ starting from $S_0=b$ is bounded hence $E_b(S_T)=b$, that is, $$ aP_b(T_a\lt T_c)+cP_b(T_c\lt T_a)=b=a(1-P_b(T_c\lt T_a))+cP_b(T_c\lt T_a), $$ which yields $P_b(T_c\lt T_a)$.