Suppose a random walk $\{X_n\}_{n\in \mathbb Z^{\ge 0}}$ on the integer number line, $ \mathbb {Z}$ , which starts at $0$ and at each step moves $+1$ or $−1$ with equal probability. The increments between any two consecutive steps are independent. I want to find the probability that $X$ does not hit $0$ during time $\mathbb Z^{\ge 1}$.
My question: It seems like that $P[X_1\le 0 , X_2 \le 0, ..., X_{n-1}\le 0] = P[M_{n-1} = 0]$ only explains the lower half of the graph. By symmetry, don't we need to multiply $P[M_{n-1} = 0]$ by $2$? But, multiplying by $2$ does not work even for $n=1$. Why do we not need to multiply $P[M_{n-1} = 0]$ by $2$?


The solution shows how to find the probability given that $X_1=-1$. The probability given $X_1=1$ is the same. So from here it is just conditional probability. Let $E=\{X_1\ne 0,...,X_n\ne 0\}$. Then:
$p_n=P(E)=P(E|X_1=-1)\times P(X_1=-1)+P(E|X_1=1)\times P(X_1=1)=$
$=P(E|X_1=-1)\times (\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2})=P(E|X_1=-1)$