I am interested in the following non-linear system \begin{align*} \ddot{x}&=(\dot{x})^2+g(x-y+\nu)\\ \ddot{y}&=(\dot{y})^2+g(y-x)~~,\\ \end{align*} where $g$ is a monotonic, increasing, and positive function; and $\nu>0$ is a constant. We can assume $g$ is smoother if it helps. Initial conditions are $\dot{x}(0)=x(0)=\dot{y}(0)=y(0)=0$. Both $x(t)$ and $y(t)$ are functions from the positive reals to the positive reals. I think it is not too hard to prove they are growing functions as well.
What I expect is that the answer to the question I pose in the title is "yes". That is, the initial extra "kick" on $x(t)$ will keep it above $y(t)$ at all times. Maybe $x(t)$ will blow-up before $y(t)$ (I am almost sure they both blow-up in finite time, at least when g is bounded). In fact, I think that $x(t)$ will be larger than the solution of $f''=(f')^2+g(\nu)$ and that $y(t)$ will be smaller than the solution of $f''=(f')^2+g(0)$, but I am not completly sure. This could be an approach to solve the question.
How to prove all these? (the things that are true of course). I would be very thankful if whoever kind enough to answer or comment could mention good references to study about similar subjects. Regards.
Update (11 May 2018)
I was able to solve the equation for the particular case $g(s)=e^s$. With the change of variables $x=-\ln(p)$ and $y=-\ln(q)$, the system becomes \begin{align*} -\ddot{p}&=p(t)g\left(\ln\left(\frac{q(t)}{p(t)}\right)+\nu\right)=e^\nu q(t)\\ -\ddot{q}&=q(t)g\left(\ln\left(\frac{p(t)}{q(t)}\right)\right)=p(t)~~,\\ \end{align*} with initial conditions $p(0)=q(0)=1$ and $\dot{p}(0)=\dot{q}(0)=0$. This system is solvable, although the solutions are quite ugly so I will not put them explicitly. However, as expected, both $x$ and $y$ are increasing, and $p(t)$ becomes zero (that is, $x(t)$ blows-up) in finite time while $y(t)$ is still finite. What I postulate above about the inequalities that I expect x and y should fulfill it is also true in this particular case.
Hint
We have for $x \ge y$
$$ g(x-y+\nu) \ge g(x-y) \ge g(y-x) $$