Take a random walk on a Christmas tree, starting at the top. What is the probability of returning to the top?

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Consider a "Christmas tree lattice" composed of equilateral triangles, as shown. The lattice extends down infinitely.

enter image description here

Start at the top vertex and take a random walk. At each step, move to a randomly chosen neighboring vertex, each with equal probability. Re-visiting vertices is allowed.

What is the probability of returning to the top?

Context

I was reading about Polya's random walk constants, and with all the Christmas trees appearing these days, this question naturally arose.

My thoughts

Let $p(k)$ be the probability of returning to the top for the first time on the $k$th step, and let $P(n)=\sum\limits_{k=2}^n p(k)$. We are looking for $P(\infty)$.

According to my calculations, based on counting paths:
$p(2)=\frac14$
$p(3)=\frac{1}{4^2}=\frac{1}{16}$
$p(4)=\frac{2}{4^3}+\frac{1}{4^2\cdot3}=\frac{5}{96}$
$p(5)=\frac{3}{4^4}+\frac{4}{4^3\cdot 3}=\frac{25}{768}$
$p(6)=\frac{6}{4^5}+\frac{21}{4^4 6}+\frac{12}{4^3 6^2}+\frac{4}{4^2 6^3}=\frac{179}{6912}$
Calculating gets progressively harder.

$P(6)=\frac14+\frac{1}{16}+\frac{5}{96}+\frac{25}{768}+\frac{179}{6912}=\approx 0.423032$.

I guess $P(\infty)<1$, because whenever the path touches the boundary of the tree, the probability of going down is double the probability of going up.

If we have a triangular lattice (instead of a Christmas tree), the probability of returning to the origin is presumably $1$.

Edit

In the comments, @user has provided values of $P(n)$ for $n=5,6,50,100, 150, 200, 250,300$. (I got the same results for $n=5,6$.)

Here is a graph of $P(n)$ against $n$, for $n=2,6,50,100,150,200,250,300$.

enter image description here

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The probability to come back to the top is one. Just take 5 more copies of the tree and tile the plane with them, getting a tiling of the plane by triangles. With a good definition of what happens on the boundaries of the tree, we have a random walk in the plane with expectation zero which will be null recurrent. Rigorous details can be painful, but I am pretty sure of the result.

Edit. What follows is not a complete proof, since some argument (martingale? coupling? harmonic functions?) is missing. Denote $w=e^{i\pi/3}$ and consider the lattice $E=\mathbb{Z}+w\mathbb{Z}+w^2\mathbb{Z}.$

We consider $(U_n)$ iid such that $\Pr(U_n=u)=1/6$ for $u=\pm 1,\pm w,\pm w^2.$ We consider $(X_n)$ iid such that $\Pr(X_n=x)=1/4$ if $x=\pm 1$ and $\Pr(X_n=x)=1/8$ if $x=\pm w,\ \pm w^2.$ We consider $(Y_n)$ iid such that $\Pr(Y_n=y)=1/4$ if $y=\pm w$ and $\Pr(Y_n=y)=1/8$ if $y=\pm 1,\ \pm w^2.$ We consider $(Z_n)$ iid such that $\Pr(Z_n=z)=1/4$ if $z=\pm w^2$ and $\Pr(Z_n=z)=1/8$ if $z=\pm 1,\ \pm w.$

Now we consider the Markov chain $(S_n)$ on $E$ such that $$S_{n+1}=s+U_{n+1} $$ if $s=S_n=a+wb+cw^2$ is such that either $a=b=c=0$ or $a,b,c$ are such that at least either $a,b\neq 0,$ or $b,c\neq 0$, or $c,a\neq 0.$

In other cases $S_{n+1}=s+X_{n+1}$ if $s\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus \{0\}$, $S_{n+1}=s+Y_{n+1}$ if $s\in w\mathbb{Z}\setminus \{0\}$,$S_{n+1}=s+Z_{n+1}$ if $s\in w^2\mathbb{Z}\setminus \{0\}.$

This chain is so close to the null recurrent random walk $$S'_n=u+U_1+\cdots+U_n$$ that one guess that it should also be null recurrent.

Finally coming back to the initial chain $C_n$ on the Chrismas tree it is clear that $C_n$ is obtained by folding $E$ on the tree in an obvious way.

Final edit. I found the solution in the theorem page 133 of the book'Random walks and electric networks' by Peter Doyle and Laurie Snell, Carus Mathematical Monographs 1984, which shows that $S_n$ is recurrent. Indeed $S'_n$ is recurrent and the transition probabilities $p_{ij}$ and $p'(ij)$ of these two Markov chains on $E$ are such that there exist $u>0$ and $v$ satisfiying $up_{ij}<p'_{ij}<vp_{ij}.$ The proof of the fact that the random walk on the Christmas tree will hit the top an infinite number of times is complete.

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This is not a proof, but just some evidence that the probability is $1$.

In the comments, @user provided the following values:

$P(50)=0.627516$
$P(100)=0.668383$
$P(150)=0.688919$
$P(200)=0.702192$
$P(250)=0.711817$
$P(300)=0.719279$

(@user also provided values of $P(5)$ and $P(6)$, which matched my calculated values.)

Taking a clue from here, I conjectured that $P(n)$ approaches something like $f(n)=1-\dfrac{a}{\log n+b}$ for some $a$ and $b$. I found that with $a=2$ and $b=1.37$, we have:

$P(50)=1.009912\times f(50)$
$P(100)=1.004662\times f(100)$
$P(150)=1.003448\times f(150)$
$P(200)=1.003025\times f(200)$
$P(250)=1.002862\times f(250)$
$P(300)=1.002807\times f(300)$

Since $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f(n)=1$, this suggests that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}P(n)=1$.