Why is this true? I just read this in a relativity theory textbook without any proof. Is that really that obvious?
2026-03-27 05:37:59.1774589879
$\tanh (x+y)=\tanh (z)\rightarrow x+y=z?$
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$$ \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\tanh(x)=\operatorname{sech}^2(x)\gt0 $$ So $\tanh(x)$ is strictly increasing, hence injective.